I read a similar post for the year 2007 but would like updated information. I have a rental property in California. If I sell it as the same basis that I bought it at (after figuring in capital expenditures minus depreciation), and choose to invest the money and not purchase another rental property, what are the taxes on the property? Is the rule of tax exclusion still applicable if I move into the property and make it my personal residence for two years before selling?