R
Rich Carreiro
Some years ago a relative inherited some raw land. It is
completely vacant and was so while owned by the decedent as
well.
The land wan't being rented out or anything by the decedent
and was not rented out by my relative.
Finally, after years of trying, the relative managed to sell
the land. There's going to be a loss of at least the amount
of real estate commission since land prices in that area did
not go up since the inheritance.
My question -- is this an allowable capital loss or not?
Certainly the land was not being used for any business
purpose.
But since it was not being used for a personal purpose
(neither decedent nor heir lived on it, recreated on it,
extracted resources from it, etc.) can it legitimately be
claimed that the heir was holding the land for investment,
and therefore it is not personal use and the loss is
allowable?
completely vacant and was so while owned by the decedent as
well.
The land wan't being rented out or anything by the decedent
and was not rented out by my relative.
Finally, after years of trying, the relative managed to sell
the land. There's going to be a loss of at least the amount
of real estate commission since land prices in that area did
not go up since the inheritance.
My question -- is this an allowable capital loss or not?
Certainly the land was not being used for any business
purpose.
But since it was not being used for a personal purpose
(neither decedent nor heir lived on it, recreated on it,
extracted resources from it, etc.) can it legitimately be
claimed that the heir was holding the land for investment,
and therefore it is not personal use and the loss is
allowable?