Employee Benefits Allocation Base

[mrneb]

When setting up an indirect rate for Employee Benefits with labor dollars as the base. I've seen situations where a company would use just straight time labor (non-overtime) and others where they would use straight time and overtime premium. I'd like to better understand how this decision is made and why.

Also any advice on how to better understand the cause and affect relationship between a company's various indirect rates would be appreciated.



Thanks!