Hi, everyone. Thank you very much for your prior insight to my first go 'round with this topic. Now that I've had some time to get my head around this a little better, I am hoping you will indulge me on the same subject. I have been digging through all of the old paperwork and can paint you a more complete picture. - 5/97, my mother died and her estate was moved under an irrevocable trust for the next 7 years. Included in that was an IRA account. - 8/97, the IRA was transferred to a different brokerage house that the trustee worked with on a regular basis. - 11/98, the trust opted to take the distribution of the IRA rather than defer for 5 years and the proceeds were dumped into a regular brokerage account. - 5/04, the trust began to be dissolved but the brokerage account still needed to be transferred into my name. - 11/04, the brokerage account was transferred into my name and the trust dissolved. - 12/04, the securities were sold and the proceeds reinvested in mutual funds in my brokerage account. (No, I wasn't watching the calendar...) None of the securities held in the brokerage account by the time of the dissolution of the trust were the same securities my mother had owned. So, 1.) Should I be using the cost basis on the date of purchase by the trust to determine my capital gains/losses or the values on the date the securities were transferred to me? (Considering some of these are companies such as Cisco and AOL, I'd much prefer the older, pre-Bubble Burst prices.) 2.) Who is responsible for any capital gains on dividends before the account was transferred to me? Would that be me or the trust? Thanks for your patience and your insight.