Hi there,
Im wondering what would be the revenue recognition for a rent to own scheme whereby customers can pay rent for say 3 years (with above market rate premium) and the cumulative rental money will be used as their deposit to buy the property.
Say the house costs 300k and monthly rental is 1k. So for three years, the total rent money is 36k. And after the third year, the tenant will have the option buy the house at 300-36 = 264k orrr a different house priced at 350k but the 36k is deducted from the price (essentially the total rent money is used as deposit) so the house is priced at 350-36= 314k.
alternatively, the tenant my not choose to buy and pay a cancellation fee.
The revenue recognition seems similar to finance lease, however, what would the cost recognition be and would the unsold house need to be valuated or is recorded in inventory as its original amount?
Thanks!
Im wondering what would be the revenue recognition for a rent to own scheme whereby customers can pay rent for say 3 years (with above market rate premium) and the cumulative rental money will be used as their deposit to buy the property.
Say the house costs 300k and monthly rental is 1k. So for three years, the total rent money is 36k. And after the third year, the tenant will have the option buy the house at 300-36 = 264k orrr a different house priced at 350k but the 36k is deducted from the price (essentially the total rent money is used as deposit) so the house is priced at 350-36= 314k.
alternatively, the tenant my not choose to buy and pay a cancellation fee.
The revenue recognition seems similar to finance lease, however, what would the cost recognition be and would the unsold house need to be valuated or is recorded in inventory as its original amount?
Thanks!