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I work in accounting and I am finishing up my degree at the same time, so I feel like I am a step above the rest of my peers. Today in class we were presented with the following problem, and the way it was done just didn't seem right to me. I work doing taxes, but I get stuck with some cleanup bookkeeping sometimes and negative expenses, liabilities, and assets are one of the things that sticks out to me the most:
Devers Corporation issued $494,000 of 6% bonds on May 1, 2013. The bonds were dated January 1, 2013, and mature January 1, 2015, with interest payable July 1 and January 1. The bonds were issued at face value plus accrued interest. Prepare Devers's journal entries for (a) the May 1 issuance, (b) the July 1 interest payment, and (c) the December 31 adjusting entry.
My professor told us that the journal entry to part A is: Dr. Cash 503,880 Cr. Bond Payable 494,000 Cr. Interest Expense 9,880.
I asked her why we would credit interest expense if there had been no previous debit in the expenses account which would create a negative expense. She then said that it is covered with part B which is: Dr. Interest Expense 14,820 Cr. Cash 14,820.
I would think that instead you would make journal entry for part A: Dr. Cash 503,880 Cr. Bond payable 494,000 Cr. Interest payable 9,880.
Then Part B would be: Dr. Interest payable 9,880 Dr. Interest expense 4,940 Cr. 14,820.
She said that the way she showed is the correct way to do it and that it isn't done the way I seem to think it would be done. She has her PhD so maybe there is something I'm missing, but I don't see how I'm wrong.
Thanks!
Devers Corporation issued $494,000 of 6% bonds on May 1, 2013. The bonds were dated January 1, 2013, and mature January 1, 2015, with interest payable July 1 and January 1. The bonds were issued at face value plus accrued interest. Prepare Devers's journal entries for (a) the May 1 issuance, (b) the July 1 interest payment, and (c) the December 31 adjusting entry.
My professor told us that the journal entry to part A is: Dr. Cash 503,880 Cr. Bond Payable 494,000 Cr. Interest Expense 9,880.
I asked her why we would credit interest expense if there had been no previous debit in the expenses account which would create a negative expense. She then said that it is covered with part B which is: Dr. Interest Expense 14,820 Cr. Cash 14,820.
I would think that instead you would make journal entry for part A: Dr. Cash 503,880 Cr. Bond payable 494,000 Cr. Interest payable 9,880.
Then Part B would be: Dr. Interest payable 9,880 Dr. Interest expense 4,940 Cr. 14,820.
She said that the way she showed is the correct way to do it and that it isn't done the way I seem to think it would be done. She has her PhD so maybe there is something I'm missing, but I don't see how I'm wrong.
Thanks!