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Hi All
First time adoption of IFRS 16 was last financial year. My right of use asset equals my lease liability at this stage, save the interest charge to the lease.
The asset belongs to a class that is revalued under IAS40. Its a property we are leasing for 80 years and it has been revalued on the basis that we have put a huge amount of capital investment in to it and the arrangement is such that we will always be in this lease, if that makes sense, there are no breaks or dilaps costs either.
How are you all revaluing the right of use asset under the IAS40 model?
First time adoption of IFRS 16 was last financial year. My right of use asset equals my lease liability at this stage, save the interest charge to the lease.
The asset belongs to a class that is revalued under IAS40. Its a property we are leasing for 80 years and it has been revalued on the basis that we have put a huge amount of capital investment in to it and the arrangement is such that we will always be in this lease, if that makes sense, there are no breaks or dilaps costs either.
How are you all revaluing the right of use asset under the IAS40 model?