USA 8594 Question


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Dealing with a clearly laid out asset acquisition agreement.

For the FMV/Column 1 of Part 2, is FMV just the same as allocated sales price? Thus that column would equal the same as the 2nd column allocation of sales price. Is that one even needed, if column 2 is clearly laid out?

Also, on FMV is that for assets only because I can't find a way to put a FMV on goodwill, non-compete and consulting agreements other than what buyer and seller agreed on?

Thanks
 
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