In 2002 my brother and I inherited my parents' house in California through a trust. We each inherited 50/50%. At that time the house was appraised at $500K and we understood that to be our cost basis stepped-up. It was my understanding that since we each owned 1/2 share, our cost basis was then $250K each. Now my brother has died and I have inherited his 1/2 share. This is a probate case and the probate referee appraised my brother's share at $340K FMV. Perhaps I assumed incorrectly that the $340K is added to my already established cost ($250K)basis to arrive at a final cost basis of $590K. But my lawyer has me in circles because he says that the FMV is not the cost basis; that a cost basis ("whatever it is") is arrived at through some sort of court proceeding. He also stated to me that I don't get a stepped-up basis because the property passed from sibling to sibling. Now he says it is possible to get a stepped-up basis. It seems to me there should be some method other than doing a court proceeding to determine my new cost basis? Where did our original cost basis of $500K disappear to?
Or, do I now use the original $500K as the cost basis and add to that my brothers FMV appraisal to equal $840K? Any insight will be appreciated!
Or, do I now use the original $500K as the cost basis and add to that my brothers FMV appraisal to equal $840K? Any insight will be appreciated!