Hi everyone,
I'm a rather new accountant and trying to explore methods to improve the income statement figures that make sense and is legal.
So my client is a retail company that holds inventory, there is a huge director's loan on the balance sheet at the moment and the company is owned by 1 sole director as a limited company.
Is it possible to allocate/reclassify a fixed percentage of Cost of Goods Sold each month to offset the director's loan if we have the director's consent?
Is such accounting treatment usual and how would an auditor interpret such treatment?
I'm a rather new accountant and trying to explore methods to improve the income statement figures that make sense and is legal.
So my client is a retail company that holds inventory, there is a huge director's loan on the balance sheet at the moment and the company is owned by 1 sole director as a limited company.
Is it possible to allocate/reclassify a fixed percentage of Cost of Goods Sold each month to offset the director's loan if we have the director's consent?
Is such accounting treatment usual and how would an auditor interpret such treatment?