If a construction machinery company (e.g. Caterpillar) has a finance leasing arm, (e.g. Caterpillar Finance), can a sale be recorded in the P&L of the first entity if a piece of machinery is sold from the first entity to the second, even if the latter does not have a known buyer?
Trying to understand how easy it would be for a construction machinery company to inflate sales by simply dumping machinery on to its in-house financing arm.
Thanks.
Trying to understand how easy it would be for a construction machinery company to inflate sales by simply dumping machinery on to its in-house financing arm.
Thanks.