In IAS 36, What is the reason for selecting a recoverable amount as the higher of the Assets Fair value less costs to sell and Value in Use.
This seems to be a bit of inconsistency for me as it seems to me that being prudent would mean to select the lower of 2 values. Is there any special reason ?
Another reason why I feel this is an inconsistency is because IFRS 5 seems to be a direct opposite. In IFRS 5, The value of an asset held for sale is said to be the lower of the carrying amount or fair value less costs to sell.
Regards,
ArunM
This seems to be a bit of inconsistency for me as it seems to me that being prudent would mean to select the lower of 2 values. Is there any special reason ?
Another reason why I feel this is an inconsistency is because IFRS 5 seems to be a direct opposite. In IFRS 5, The value of an asset held for sale is said to be the lower of the carrying amount or fair value less costs to sell.
Regards,
ArunM